Now, that being said, John 1:1 KJV, in and of itself, is perfectly true, full stop – no other verses needed. But the Bible goes on in verses 2-18 to personify the Word (the whole of Physical Creation) by saying God’s Word is Jesus, a man. The problem with this is that it shifts the focus of people’s worship from the Message to the messenger. In Jesus’ case, as in many other cases, the result is man worship. People rendering sacred service to the creation rather than the Creator. Furthermore, the idea that God has a Son is contradicted by other verses in the Bible. Other claims and verses also are contradicted by the Bible as well. John 1: 2-18 illustrates this dilemma perfectly, which I will now detail. In John 1: 12,13 it says – 12 ‘But as many as received him, to them gave he power to become the sons of God, even to them that believe on his name: 13 ‘Which were born, not of blood, nor of the will of the flesh, nor of the will of man, but of God’. How does it go from ’only begotten Son to sons of God, born of God? Why do some verses refer to Jesus using the pronoun him in lower case? Sons of God are also mentioned in In Job 1: 6, 7 – 6 ‘Now there was a day when the sons of God came to present themselves before the LORD, and Satan came also among them’. 7 ‘And the LORD said unto Satan, Whence comest thou?‘ Other than the sons of God issue, Verse 7 poses a different question, a different problem. God IS Omniscient! So, why would he ask Satan, ‘Whence comest thou?’ He would not!